Variance inflation factor with two predictors
Solution 1:
Yes. The only source of multicolinearity in your model the linear correlation between $X_1$, and $X_2$, and since in simple linear regression $R^2$ of the regression of $X_1$ on $X_2$ (or vice versa) equals the square of the Pearson correlation coefficient between $X_1$ and $X_2$, then indeed $VIF_1 = VIF_2$.