Use of the definite article by Hemingway in "For Whom the Bell Tolls", in a way that doesn't seem to mimic Spanish grammar

I am not a native English speaker, but I've been studying English for a couple of decades now... And recently I decided to read "For Whom the Bell Tolls". I know that in this book Hemingway writes in a different way, trying to mimic Spanish grammar in English. But in Chapter 19, one Spanish character (Pablo) says:

"But I believe that the Pilar can divine events (...)"

So Hemingway used the definite article before someone's name. But as far as I know this is not how one would speak in Spanish: "Pero yo creo que Pilar puede adivinar (...)". There is no definite article there, and it doesn't seem to be something that one would do in English either. It only sounds natural to me in Portuguese: "Creio que a Pilar pode adivinhar (...)" -- the "a" before Pilar is the definite article in Portuguese. And even in Portuguese, it would be perfectly normal to ommit the article.

So, what is it that I did not get? Is it acceptable to use "the" before someone's name in English? (I have never seen that before)

"...the Pilar..." sounds perfectly Spanglish to me. It's common in Spanish to use the definite article when referring to famous people (women especially). This usage is also used affectionately/satirically about friends and family who may be acting haughtily/grandly...

In the Spanish link below, the example is given of a political candidate whose full name is Perú Inga Zapata. She is referred to in discussions/the press as 'La Perú'. In the banner newspaper headline - "Y como esta La Perú" ("And How Is Peru") - readers' attention is grabbed because Peru, the country, is masculine (El Perú).

The English link also suggests how English achieves a similar affect.

http://udep.edu.pe/castellanoactual/y-como-esta-la-peru/

https://www.quora.com/Why-do-Spanish-speakers-use-a-la-in-front-of-a-name-of-a-girl-I-e-La-Monica-La-Maria-La-Charlotte-What-is-the-intended-effect