"Keith does not a hint take" or "A hint does Keith not take"

While wasting time on the internet (as I am wont to do), I came across a video in which somebody was criticizing a blog-post and corrected the statement

• *Keith does not a hint take.

supplying his corrected version

• **A hint does Keith not take.

with the added explanation that the first sentence implies that there is a hint not taking Keith, unlike his phrasing. In either case, the intended connotation is supposed to be that of the statement

• Keith does not take a hint.

Do either of the above statements carry this meaning?

To my ears, the first statement seems perfectly comprehensible and does not appear to flip subject and object, while the second seems convoluted. Maybe something like "A hint Keith does not take" is something more along the lines the critic was going for? At any rate, I would appreciate an explanation as to which of the above statements are grammatical and/or carry their intended meaning.

Edit: Just ran into my old post and was curious. The video I was talking about is here.

"*Kieth does not a hint take" is Shakespearean (or Elizabethan) syntax. Spoken today, that would sound formal and aloof. But it might work well in a poem, where a rhyme for "take" might be easier to work in than for "hint".

It reminds me of German, where the verb typically goes at the end of the sentence.

The "corrected version" is indeed worse.