Can cross partial derivatives exist everywhere but be equal nowhere?
My posts in the following 2006 and 2007 sci.math threads may be of interest:
second partial derivatives commute (Clairaut's Thm.)
http://groups.google.com/group/sci.math/msg/78a769e88081ec8b
http://groups.google.com/group/sci.math/msg/3b7eeedf51fc5b92
http://groups.google.com/group/sci.math/msg/cd695899296573b6
History of mixed partial derivatives equality
http://groups.google.com/group/sci.math/msg/14aa228dadc9ed5b