Can cross partial derivatives exist everywhere but be equal nowhere?

My posts in the following 2006 and 2007 sci.math threads may be of interest:

second partial derivatives commute (Clairaut's Thm.)

http://groups.google.com/group/sci.math/msg/78a769e88081ec8b

http://groups.google.com/group/sci.math/msg/3b7eeedf51fc5b92

http://groups.google.com/group/sci.math/msg/cd695899296573b6

History of mixed partial derivatives equality

http://groups.google.com/group/sci.math/msg/14aa228dadc9ed5b