Is the meme, "all your base are belong to us" correct for any time period?

Solution 1:

No, they are completely different constructions.

Become in the phrase “are become” is the past participle, and the construction is an older form of “have become”. (It’s just a coincidence that become has the same form in its infinitive and its past participle).

Older English often used forms of be to form the perfect of some verbs, particularly verbs of motion, and verbs of change of state, where today we would use forms of have. You can find many examples of “is come”, “are arrived”, “is changed” and so on. The parallel construction is still used in French: “je suis arrivé” (“I am arrived”) as opposed to “j’ai vu” (“I have seen”).

But belong does not function as the past participle of belong: a parallel construction would be “they are belonged to”, which is not grammatical because belong is transitive (takes an object) so its perfect was never formed with be. In any case, the meaning of “all your base are belong to us” is not perfect.

Solution 2:

I’ll address the last question, “And, is it possible that they were both written under the direction of God almighty?”

The Bible was not written in English. Paul’s letters, in particular, were written in Greek. Some people translated it into English, but there are loads of such people, and if you check I think you’ll find most of those translations don’t use that construction, but a more modern one.