Is the gerund and (present) participle form always the same (spelling)? [duplicate]

Are the participle and gerund form of a verb always technically the same and in all tenses (in the sense of spelling) or do deviations exist?

Reason is because I'm building a database and need to know if I need to store these in separate fields or if I can deduce their grammatical context from code.

Solution 1:

Are the participle and gerund form of a verb always technically the same and in all tenses (in the sense of spelling) or do deviations exist?

Remember that verbs have different participles according to tense.

The gerund is always identical to the present participle. It is always differently spelled from the past participle.

The gerund itself has no tense because it is a noun equivalent.