"I mind to" vs "I am minded to"

If I wanted to say "I am inclined to seek cheaper results inside the supermarket", then which of the following ways would make the most sense?

• I mind to seek cheaper results inside the supermarket

• I am minded to seek cheaper results inside the supermarket.

According to google, the fifth definition of "mind" as a verb is "be inclined to do something" with the example: "he was minded to reject the application". This doesn't make sense because in that example, "minded" is an adjective (he was minded) — which I would assume to be, knowing the word "small-minded" — and also it is in the past tense of "mind".

Since I couldn't specifically tell what google meant by this, I went to the good ol' classic dictionary (with pages, mind you!) and found the words "mind" and "minded" to mean two seperate things.

Minded can mean "disposed, inclined; (in compounds) having a mind as described, e.g. small-minded" (I don't know what "in compounds" means, unfortunately). But the word mind does not mean any of those, as a noun or verb (transitive or intransitive).

I thus believe that the second sentence is (more) correct, but... did I evaluate correctly, or not? I mean, if "minded" is in past tense and could mean "be inclined to" then wouldn't "mind" just mean "incline to"? Because I'm still in Year 10 — I still undertake english studies, so I'm no real expert ;)

Thank you in advance!

There may be some dialect that uses I mind to in that way, but I am not aware of one.

I am minded to feels old-fashioned to me, but certainly you still hear it where I live.

From the OED:

minded

a. In predicative use only: intending, disposed, inclined to (†for to) (do something). to be so minded: to be inclined to do what has been mentioned or specified.

and the idiom: TFD

if you've a mind to do something,

your second sentence is more correct:

I am minded to seek cheaper results inside the supermarket.

In AmE, I have (I've) a mind to or I have in mind to is occasionally heard and seen.