Pullback of a covering map

Yes. Let $E^\prime=E\times_BC$ be the pullback with $p^\prime:E^\prime\rightarrow C$ the projection and $f^\prime:E^\prime\rightarrow E$ the other projection. Suppose $U\subseteq B$ is evenly covered by $p$, meaning that $p^{-1}(U)=\coprod_{i\in I}V_i$ with the $V_i$ open subsets of $E$, each of which is mapped homeomorphically onto $U$ by $p$. Then I claim that $f^{-1}(U)$, an open subset of $C$, is evenly covered by $p^\prime$. In fact, we have $(p^\prime)^{-1}(f^{-1}(U))=(f^\prime)^{-1}(p^{-1}(U))=\coprod_{i\in I}(f^\prime)^{-1}(V_i)$. So we need to check that each $(f^\prime)^{-1}(V_i)$ is mapped homeomorphically onto $f^{-1}(U)$ by $p^\prime$. But the restriction $p^\prime:(f^\prime)^{-1}(V_i)\rightarrow f^{-1}(U)$ is the pullback of the restriction $p:V_i\rightarrow U$ along $f:f^{-1}(U)\rightarrow U$, so because the restriction of $p$ is a homeomorphism, so is the restriction of $p^\prime$.

Yes. If $c \in C$, choose a n.h. $U$ of $f(c)$ such that the preimage $p^{-1}(U)$ of is a union of open subsets each mapping isomorphically to $U$. Then $f^{-1}(U)$ is a n.h. of $c$ with the analogous property (since the preimage of the pull-back over $f^{-1}(U)$ is the same as the pull-back of $p^{-1}(U) \to U$ via $f^{-1}(U) \to U$).