How do we use the dominated convergence theorem here? [duplicate]

Let $f$ be a nonegative measurable function on $\mathbb{R}$. Show that

\begin{equation} \boxed{\lim_{n \to \infty} \int_{-n}^{n} f=\int_{\mathbb{R}} f} \end{equation}

This is from Royden 4th, chapter 4 #34.

I know we can easily do this with the monotone convergence theorem, but what about the Dominated convergence theorem? The statement of the dominated convergence theorem states that the dominating function is integrable, and the obvious candidate for that function would just be $f$ since it clearly dominates $f\chi_{[-n,n]}$. But we do not know that $\int_{\mathbb{R}}f$ has finite integral, so how can we use the theorem?

Solution 1:

If you are required to avoid Monotone Convergence Theorem you can do the following: We may suppose $\int f=\infty$ since the other case is trivial.Let $T$ be any positive number. There exists a simple function $s$ such that $0 \leq s \leq f $ and $\int s >T$. By elementary properties of a measure you can see that $\int_{-n}^{n} f \geq \int_{-n}^{n} s \to \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} s>T$. Hence, $\int_{-n}^{n} f >N$ for $n$ sufficiently large.

We now have a proof that uses only basic properties of a measure (especially continuity from below of a measure) and DCT.