What is the inverse of an inner automorphism?
In the first method, you are doing $(f_a(x))^{-1}$; that is, you are inverting the output of a homomorphism. By homomorphism properties, this is also the same as $f_a(x^{-1})$.
In the second method, you are actually solving for the inverse of the homomorphism $f_a$ itself, and not taking the inverse of a single element in its output. So, the second method is correct.