Can I use inverse negation in modern English?

I've seen it used a lot in older texts and was curious if it can still be used in modern writing without too many questions. I think in a lot of places it can make sentences much cleaner.

Example:

"He is a man so self evidently righteous that the thought of sin does not pass through his mind." (Traditional negation)

Vs.

"He is a man so self evidently righteous that the thought of sin passes not through his mind." (Inverse negation)

Thanks in advance (:

Solution 1:

You can according to Purdue, but it should not (but not cannot) be done for anything other than comedic affect or as a descriptor/clarifier of a sentence.