When can verb come before subject? [duplicate]
I am not a native English speaker, but I am interested in learning a certain grammar rule. I did come across many sentences where the subject and the verb switched their positions.
For example, I can say that I don't like apples nor does my friend. Here, the modal verb does comes before the subject my friend.
Another example: not only is he a great person, but he is humble.
What is this rule and when is it appropriate to use it?
Solution 1:
English has quite a strong tendency to have the verb second in the sentence (not necessarily the second word, but the second constituent) Normally the subject is the first constituent that precedes it; but there are a number of other items which may serve that function, and in those cases the subject moves after the verb:
- Emphatic negatives:
Never shall I see him again.
Neither could they reach it that day.
At no time did I notice this.
- Other adverbs with negative polarity:
Rarely did they come and visit.
Hardly had I arrived than he spoke.
These are mostly a bit literary, but as you point out "neither/nor does ... " is normal in speech.
Solution 2:
There is an archaic mode of speech where the subject can come after the verb in the interrogative, as in this excerpt from John Bunyan's "The Pilgrim's Progress" (1678)
See you yon tree? 'twill well our purpose suit;
' Let us go near; its leaves are full and fair,
' It stands a type of false profession there
The similar archaic imperative (command form) puts the subject after the verb, as in the King James Bible, Matthew 4:10
Then saith Jesus unto him, Get thee hence, Satan: for it is written, Thou shalt worship the Lord thy God, and him only shalt thou serve.
[Update] I forgot about the standard question form of the "to be" verb:
Are you going to work today?
Are we not men?!
Is he or is he not the President?
Note that I interpret the question as asking where the subject can come after the entire verb, and not just between the auxiliary verb and the principal verb.