Validity of the phrase "I had wrote to her" [closed]

I recently got corrected on another community on this platform. I wrote: "An email I had wrote to her", and it was courteously changed to "I had written to her" which still makes sense, however, I want to ask if the former is not grammatically correct and if these are simply two phrases that mean different things.

Question Is "An email I had wrote to her" ever correct English? Is it bad English totally or there are instances it may be used.

I'm thinking it would be valid when I refer to the time in the past, where the action was already past tense.

English is not my mother tongue, but I'm not necessarily learning English anew, so I wasn't sure whether to post in the other English community.

Solution 1:

The simple past form "wrote" must stand alone. If you combine it with a word like "had" it does need to change to the form "written."

https://www.ego4u.com/en/cram-up/grammar/tenses

Solution 2:

Using the simple past as the past participle is not uncommon in some regional and other vernacular forms of English. It's not generally treated as correct outside those cases, though they're widespread and have a long history.

Finding examples is tricky, but they're spread from the Appalachians to various regions of Britain (specific examples in West Country, London, Geordie...). "I've ate" instead of "I've eaten" is a more common example.