How to prove absolute summability of sinc function?

We know that $$\int_0^\infty \left(\frac{\sin x}{x}\right)^2 dx=\int_0^\infty \frac{\sin x}{x} \, dx=\frac{\pi}{2}.$$

How do I show that $$\int_0^\infty \left\vert\frac{\sin x}{x} \right\vert \, dx$$ converges?

Solution 1:

It doesn't. Using the convexity of $1/x$,

$$\int_0^\infty \left\vert\frac{\sin x}{x}\right\vert \,\mathrm{d}x=\sum_{k=0}^\infty\int_{k\pi}^{(k+1)\pi}\left\vert\frac{\sin x}{x}\right\vert \,\mathrm{d}x>\sum_{k=0}^\infty\int_{k\pi}^{(k+1)\pi}\frac{\left\vert\sin x\right\vert}{(k+1/2)\pi} \,\mathrm{d}x=\frac{2}{\pi}\sum_{k=0}^\infty\frac{1}{k+1/2}\;,$$

which diverges since the harmonic series diverges.

Solution 2:

It doesn't. This function is a sequence of bumps of decreasing size. The $n^{\text{th}}$ "bump" bounds area on the order of $\frac{1}{n}$ (there are a number of ways to show this), but $\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{n} = \infty$.