What is the origin of “I calls ’em like I sees ’em”?

Solution 1:

I am not sure of the origin of the story, but the phrase comes from a story about an argument between three umpires. The first umpire says, "I calls 'em like I sees 'em." The second one says, "I calls 'em like they was." And the third one says, "They ain't nothin' till I calls 'em."

There are multiple interpretations of the story, and if you google it, you will find many mentions of it (so no official source). It seems to be a story about objectivity or perhaps perspective.

When it stands alone, it's a blustery statement about confidence in one's own view of the situation.

Solution 2:

I believe it’s an Umpire (baseball) reference; the plate umpire has the job of “calling” the legality of a pitch (ball or strike).

Obviously this job requires the umpire to “see” the ball crossing in (or out) of the strike zone.

Finally, ’em is an elision of them.

Solution 3:

This phrase seems to come entirely from baseball umpires. Also, the original wording of the expression is "I calls 'em as I see 'em".

The earliest instance I can find is 1912:

He calls 'em as he sees 'em, and he's pretty nearly right most of the time.
_{The Times Dispatch}

Another early example is from 1917:

Rigler calls 'em as he sees 'em, but outside of that he is right.
_{The Evening World}

Here's another one from 1937:

Umpire Helmore says “he calls ’em as he sees ’em with no appeal.”
_{Sausalito News}

And from 1944:

"I'm the umpire," said the umpire, pushing back his little blue cap. "I calls 'em as I sees 'em. And I sees this ball as high and a little close. Now play ball!"
_{Casey Jones and locomotive no. 638: story - Issue 638}