Could anyone explain how this statement is true? You may notice that this statement is part of the process of adding two independent binomial r.v.'s.

$$ \ \sum_{x=0}^\infty{n \choose x}{m \choose w-x} ={n+m \choose w}\ $$


Solution 1:

As Bhaskar Vashishth answered, the equality can be proven by showing that both sides correspond to different methods of counting the same thing.

${n+m\choose w}$ counts all the ways to select $w$ items from $n+m$ distinct items.

${n\choose x}{m\choose w-x}$ counts all the ways to select $x$ items from $n$ distinct items, and $w-x$ items from $m$. If we sum this over all possible $x$ we have counted all the ways to select $w$ items from $m+n$ distinct items.

The two methods of counting are equivalent, therefore the equality is proven.

This technique is called a combinatorial proof. It is an elegant way of showing why such an equality holds using natural language to give an intuitive explanation.

Solution 2:

Suppose you have $n$ red balls and $m$ blue balls in an urn and you have to choose $w$ balls out of the urn. So R.H.S. must be clear. For L.H.S. see, if $w$ balls are picked either all will be blue or $1$ will be red and rest $w-1$ blue, or $2$ red and $w-2$ blue..... and so on summing all these possibilities you get all ways of selected $w$ balls from $n$ red balls and $m$ blue balls.

Just counting in two different ways.(and yes this is a proof, will also work in any exam)