Derivative commuting over integral

Can a derivative operation commute over an integral operation irrespective of the properties of the function under the integral ?

Not in general. I recommend Gelbaum and Olmsted's Counterexamples in Analysis, which is where I turned to find a counterexample to your question. Namely, example 15 on page 123 is titled

A function $f$ for which $d/dx\int_a^b f(x,y)dy\neq\int_a^b[\partial/\partial x f(x,y)]dy$, although each integral is proper.

The example is

$$f(x,y) = \left\{ \begin{array}{lr} \frac{x^3}{y^2}e^{-x^2/y} & : y>0, \\ 0 & : y=0, \end{array} \right. $$ integrated with respect to $y$ from $0$ to $1$. Actually, differentiating under the integral sign works here except where $x=0$.

The function and its partial derivative are not jointly continuous. When they are jointly continuous, differentiation and integration commute.