What does "anyone is ever" mean in this sentence?

meaning-in-context

Only in words is anyone ever omniscient.

which one is the correct understanding:

  1. Only in words anyone could be omniscient
  2. Only in words anyone was at least one time omniscient

Solution 1:

Your two paraphrases are not grammatical, because an initial only phrase at the start of a sentence triggers inversion.

The meaning is identical to Nobody is ever omniscient except in words.

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