The meaning of the sentence "Fortunately/Wisely, she consults her lawyer regularly."

In Quirk's A Comprehensive Grammar of the English Language Section 8.128 (page 624): it says

Fortunately/Wisely, she consults her lawyer regularly. [1]

= It is fortunate/wise that she consult(s)/should consult her lawyer regularly. [2]

I think that she consults her lawyer regularly in [1] is simple present tense, which means it is a fact, a habitual fact in this clause.

But the subordinate clause she consult/should consult her lawyer regularly in [2] is present subjunctive or putative should, which means it is not a fact. In reality, she may or may not consult her lawyer regularly.

So could anyone please help to figure it out why [1] and [2] are semantically equivalent?

I am not a native speaker of English and I think Quirk's book is very great. I will appreciate it if you have any ideas about this question.

PS: Regarding the meaning of the symbol equal sign =, in the book ACGEL itself page(ix), Abbreviations and symbols section, just immediately before Chapter 1 (page 1), it displays that equal sign = means semantically equivalent.

Solution 1:

I agree with Yosef. I read into the use of "fortunately/wisely" as the subjective opinion of the writer/narrator and the subjunctive mood can correctly be used to capture opinion. In that case, I do understand the equivalency, but only insofar as it is the opinion of the writer/narrator. In this case, it doesn't mean it's not a fact; it's almost like an "if/then" statement.

Ex: To the narrator, if the woman consults her lawyer regularly, then she is wise. Additionally, if the woman consults her lawyer regularly, then it is fortunate (for her, presumably). Since the woman does the exact thing the narrator thinks would/could/should be fortunate and wise, the woman meets the criteria for fortune and wisdom and is fortunate and wise. I get what Quirk means, but it might not be the most elegant way to explain the equivalency.

I could also be totally off-base.