How to treat negation in the perfect

(1) We haven't spoken since the incident.

If the negation is regarded as being included in the situation described by the perfect, the perfect haven't spoken can be said to have a continuative/universal reading, because the perfect haven't spoken describes the situation of not speaking that continues from the incident up to now.

On the other hand, if the negation is regarded as being excluded from the situation described by the perfect and the negation is simply added to the perfect after the fact, so to speak, the perfect have spoken can be said to have an experiential/existential reading, because the perfect have spoken describes the situation of speaking that does not continue from the incident up to now. In this reading, you can say that We have not experienced the situation of speaking, or that such a situation has not existed.

Which is the correct interpretation of the perfect in (1)? In other words, should (1) be interpreted as receiving the continuative/universal reading or the experiential/existential reading?

And the same question for a non-verbal negation:

(2) You have done nothing but complain since we got here.

Which reading obtains in the perfect in (2)? The continuative/universal reading or the experiential/existential reading?

EDIT

The Cambridge Grammar of the English Language (Page 141) discusses the difference between the continuative and non-continuative reading of the perfect:

Here, Tr is the time referred to (by the verb or verb group, e.g., have told, have been, told, was), and To is the time of orientation, which equates to the time of utterance in this question.

Judging by the discussion in of the present perfect in this source, I'd say that the sentence is both continuative and experiential.

While (37) presupposes the definition of state phase, the definition of state phase in turn presupposes the definition of state, which in most formal models involves universal quantification: 'if S is a state which holds at time t, all subintervals of t are also times at which S holds as well'. Accordingly, McCawley (1971, 1981), refers to the continuative PrP as the 'universal perfect'. The continuative PrP is said to indicate that all times within a present-inclusive interval are times at which the denotatum of the VP complement holds. McCawley's definition provides a clear explanation for the fact that the existential and continuative PrPs are synonymous under negation.

https://spot.colorado.edu/~michaeli/documents/Michaelis_perfect_JL.pdf

This isn't the main focus of the paper, which discusses several aspects of the perfect, but the whole thing came up for free on google, so I'll use it. You'd probably get a more thorough explanation by digging up the McCawley papers referenced in this one, or an education text focusing entirely on the usages of the present perfect. In any case, the author clearly states that the experiential and continuative present perfects are identical in negation.

So, according to Professor Laura A. Michaelis, the answer to your question is "both".