doubts on the meaning of the auxiliary verb "do" [closed]

In the "seventh Hymn on the Nativity", where St. Ephraim speaks about Tamar (Genesis 38), I read: "She was a widow for your sake. You did she long for, she hasted and was also a harlot for your sake. You did she vehemently desire.

Is that some typo? what do those two sentences mean? Thank you.

There is a stylistic inversion or fronting at play where the direct object has been placed at the front of the sentence, breaking the expectation of Subject-Verb-Object order for emphasis.

She was a widow for your sake. You did she long for, she hasted and was also a harlot for your sake. You did she vehemently desire.

"You did she long for" -> "She did long for you." 
"You did she vehemently desire" -> "She vehemently desired you."

The "you" acquires more precedence and weight. In this kind of fronting, the auxiliary verb directly follows the fronted object, just as would happen with a question where a wh-form was fronted:

"Who did she long for?" -> "She did long for you."