"To read this book later" and "To later read this book" - the difference

There is a dialog between two persons, and they are discussing some book owned by third person. There are 2 versions of phrase:

• To read this book later -- ask John.
• To later read this book -- ask John.

There are two question regarding these examples:

• Which version is grammatically correct: first, second, or both?
• If both versions are grammatically correct, then what is the difference in their meaning?

Solution 1:

Neither is ungrammatical, but the second would be an unlikely thing for anyone to say. I think you would only put later first in the sentence if it was in opposition to something else that happened earlier. "First I'm going to watch the film, and later read the book."

Solution 2:

https://getitwriteonline.com/articles/split-infinitives/ The link herein above deals exhaustively and adequately about this issue of splitting infinitives. Prescriptive grammarians are against placing an adverb in between TO < Adverb> ROOT VERB as they like to adhere to the Latin Precedent. But we have walked a long way since. Now split infinitive is a matter of ease, style and lucidity. If by doing so we add to the beauty of the garland ( word flowers ) or, at least, don't mar it's beauty, it is always welcome. We don't provide any examples for fear of repetition of what is succinctly enumerated in the link.

Suffice it to say , split or no split both are grammatically correct, and since adverbs ( loving kitten of sentence structure) have almost free mobility within the sentence, place them Where they are conveniently appropriate.

Both of your phrases mean the same.