Same distribution with different probability density function
In fact, the distribution of $Y=f(X/a)$ for any $f$ will be independent of $a$. This is because $X/a\sim U(0,1).$
Yours is the special case where $f(z)=-\log(z)$.
In fact, the distribution of $Y=f(X/a)$ for any $f$ will be independent of $a$. This is because $X/a\sim U(0,1).$
Yours is the special case where $f(z)=-\log(z)$.