Can I omit "to be" in passive infinitive?

For example,

• It's fine for the streets to be winding and the street network varied.
  (in this case, to be is repeated in both clauses so it's okay to omit to be in second clause)

• It's fine for the streets to wind and the street network varied.
  (But, when first infinitive is active and second is passive, can I still omit to be?
  I feel I should put be before varied )

Waiting for your professional advice. Thank you.

Your first example should be:

It's fine for the streets to be winding and for the street network to be varied.

The second "to be" could be omitted, if the associated noun is the same. For example:

It's fine for the streets to be winding and varied.

Your second example should have the "to be":

It's fine for the streets to wind and for the street network to be varied.

But generally this mix sounds a little off. So, you should prefer to not use a mix.