Since the rules do not forbid “I brought him him”, can I therefore say it that way?
I’ve searched about direct and indirect objects, and all explanations have led me to think that I could say this:
- ?I brought him him.
Is that allowed? I think it should be, since the rules governing direct and indirect objects’ inversion apply only to the pronouns it and them, and then only if the indirect objects are nouns, not if they’re pronouns.
So, what do you think? Because the rules say nothing against it, would it therefore be right to say the first version, not just the second?
- ?I brought him him.
- I brought him to him.
(from comments)
After all, we have the grammatical examples of:
- Give me it.
- Bring me it.
Although I don’t understand why those are ok but
- *Do me it.
is wrong.
Grammatically, it does not work. It would need contextual setup to even make sense. Even then there should be support for the second him.
I brought him Susan.
no problem
I brought Susan him.
This doesn't work, or at a minimum is extremely awkward. It should end with "Susan to him" or "to Susan him".
After his wife died, he seemed to lose himself. But I was his friend, and always will be. Since he had nothing else, we could spend a lot of time together. We talked, and argued, and drank, and cried. His emptiness started fading. He rediscovered himself. I'm not saying with pride but satisfaction that I helped bring him, him.
Other possibilities:
- ... bring him to him.
- ... bring him to himself.
- ... bring him back to himself.