Can I use "has" after being a noun? [closed]

I have a question about verb agreement. Can I use "has" after [being + noun]?

For example, is has the correct form of the verb in the following sentence?

Being a celebrity has both some advantages and some disadvantages.

Solution 1:

Being a celebrity has both some advantages and some disadvantages.

The Subject of this sentence is the clause being a celebrity. Clauses functioning as Subject take singular verb agreement. It doesn't matter what type of clause it is. The Original Poster's example sentence happens to use a subject-less gerund-participle clause. This clause also happens to be a declarative clause. However, clauses of almost any description will take singular verb agreement:

• [What the elephants found] is not important.
• [Whether to go or not] is not the most important question.
• [That the students never finish their essays] really annoys me.
• [For Bob to say that] is extraordinarily hypocritical.
• [To err] is human.
• [Eating vegetables] is good for you.

So in the Original Poster's example the form of the verb has is completely grammatical.