Without using Dirichlet's theorem, show that there are infinitely primes congruent to $a$ mod n if $a^2\equiv 1\,(\!\bmod\; n)$ [duplicate]
Solution 1:
This is a now classical result by Murty:
A Euclidean proof exists for the arithmetic progression $a \bmod n$ iff $a^2 \equiv 1 \bmod n$.
An account can be read in the paper Primes in Certain Arithmetic Progressions by Murty and Thain. See also How I discovered Euclidean proofs by Murty.
See also Euclidean proofs of Dirichlet's theorem by Keith Conrad.