Are androphilic males persons with a homosexual erotic development?

I come across the following piece and don't understand the last sentence in the light of the first one.

This suggests that the resulting proportion of true pedophiles among persons with a homosexual erotic development is greater than that in persons who develop heterosexually. This, of course, would not indicate that androphilic males have a greater propensity to offend against children.

More precisely, I don't understand who the 'androphilic males' are not included among the 'persons with a homosexual erotic development' and, as a consequence, don't understand what that piece means.

So, from a strictly language perspective, can anybody explain why "androphilic males" would not be included among 'persons with a homosexual erotic development'?

Reference → http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/1556756


Solution 1:

This suggests that the resulting proportion of true pedophiles among persons with a homosexual erotic development is greater than that in persons who develop heterosexually. This, of course, would not indicate that androphilic males have a greater propensity to offend against children.

A strict translation leaving politics out of it:

This suggests that true pedophiles are more common among homosexuals than heterosexuals, but does not mean that homosexuals are more likely to commit crimes against children.

This is because child abuse is often committed by heterosexuals as a crime of opportunity/other, rather than an erotic orientation towards children.

Solution 2:

Androphilic means "man-loving", so a person who likes men. An androphilic male is by definition an homosexual man.

I don't see what androphilia per se has to do with homosexuality, though, since homosexual women do not like men. The abstract states the ratio of gynephiles [sic] to androphiles among the general population is approximately 20:1, which is patently wrong: about the same number of people like men as like women. The abstract is confused; based on context, it appears they mean the ratio of gynaecophilic men to androphilic men.

The final sentence of your quotation is meant to indicate that, even though they suspect that the proportion of paedophiles among homosexual men is greater than that among heterosexual men, they do not mean to suggest that homosexual men actually commit sexual acts on children more frequently than heterosexual men, proportionally. (So they seem to suggest that it is possible that those homosexual paedophilic men act on their paedophilic desires less frequently than heterosexual paedophilic men, proportionally.)

Solution 3:

Short answer: Yes, androphilic or "man-loving" males are persons with homosexual or "same-sex" erotic development. In fact in the first sentence of this article, Freund and Wilson define androphilia as "an erotic preference for physically mature males." But the groups are not synonymous.

NB: This study was published in 1992, both scientific and popular usage has changed in the last 20 years. In this case, "homosexual" doesn't mean what we now call "Gay" but is being used in the older, strict sense to mean "same-sex" (e.g., either male pedophile and boy victim or female pedophile and girl victim). For what most people would now consider "Gay" or the CDC would refer to as "MSM," this article uses androphilic instead.

This suggests that the resulting proportion of true pedophiles

defined in the study as men who have been convicted of sexual crimes against children and who get measurable erections when shown pictures of prepubescent girls or boys

among persons with a homosexual erotic development

men who have a history of sexual attraction toward, or involvement with, men or boys

is greater than that in persons who develop heterosexually.

men who have a history of sexual attraction toward, or involvement with, women or girls

This, of course, would not indicate that androphilic males

men who are sexually attracted to other grown men

have a greater propensity to offend against children.

To paraphrase, this early study suggests that compared to the percentages of straight and gay men, a higher than expected proportion of convicted child molesters were sexually attracted to, or involved with, males than females; however, this doesn't mean that gay men (being attracted to men) are more likely to molest kids.