Using the Fitch system, how do I prove $((p \implies q) \implies p)\implies p$?

Using the Fitch system, how do I prove $((p \implies q) \implies p)\implies p$? I started with the hypotheses $(p \implies q) \implies p$ and $\sim p$. However, from these hypotheses I did not get the desired contradiction to solve the question.

Thanks sb45


You were on the right track .... almost there in fact:

enter image description here