Matrices with $A^3+B^3=C^3$

Solution 1:

Nobody suggested this scheme? Maybe it is hidden in the details of someone's answer, but this is the first thing I would suggest:

(EDIT: used to be 2x2, but my example obviously generalizes to any size matrices) $\begin{pmatrix}n&0&0\\ 0&p&0\\0&0&0 \end{pmatrix}^3+\begin{pmatrix}0&0&0\\ 0&0&0\\0&0&m\end{pmatrix}^3=\begin{pmatrix}n&0&0\\ 0&p&0\\0&0&m\end{pmatrix}^3$

Solution 2:

OR OR OR, given $$ x, y > 0, $$ let $$ R \; = \; \left( \begin{array}{ccc} 0 & 1 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & 1 \\ x & 0 & 0 \end{array} \right) , \; \; S \; = \; \left( \begin{array}{ccc} 0 & 1 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & 1 \\ y & 0 & 0 \end{array} \right) , \; \; T \; = \; \left( \begin{array}{ccc} 0 & 1 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & 1 \\ x + y & 0 & 0 \end{array} \right) , $$ then $$ R^3 = x I, \; \; S^3 = y I, \; \; T^3 = (x+y) I $$ and $$ R^3 + S^3 = T^3. $$

OR

$$ S \; = \; \left( \begin{array}{rrr} 0 & 1 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & 1 \\ 2n^2 & 0 & 0 \end{array} \right) , \; \; T \; = \; \left( \begin{array}{rrr} 0 & 0 & 1 \\ 2 n & 0 & 0 \\ 0 & 2 n & 0 \end{array} \right) . $$

Then $$ S^3 = 2 n^2 I, \; \; T^3 = 4 n^2 I, $$ and $$ S^3 + S^3 = T^3. $$

OR OR, given a Pythagorean triple $$ a^2 + b^2 = c^2, $$ let $$ R \; = \; \left( \begin{array}{rrr} 0 & 1 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & 1 \\ a^2 & 0 & 0 \end{array} \right) , \; \; S \; = \; \left( \begin{array}{rrr} 0 & 1 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & 1 \\ b^2 & 0 & 0 \end{array} \right) , \; \; T \; = \; \left( \begin{array}{rrr} 0 & 0 & 1 \\ c & 0 & 0 \\ 0 & c & 0 \end{array} \right) , $$ then $$ R^3 = a^2 I, \; \; S^3 = b^2 I, \; \; T^3 = c^2 I $$ and $$ R^3 + S^3 = T^3. $$

Solution 3:

Hint: If $X = \left(\begin{matrix} 0 & 0 & n \\ 0 & 0 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & 0 \end{matrix}\right)$ for some $n \in \mathbb{N}_+$ then $X \neq O$ and $X^3 = O$.

Solution 4:

Hint: some nilpotent matrices should do the trick.

Solution 5:

Due to Fermat's last theorem, trying to be cheap and using diagonal matrices won't work. We need to be more subtle. Assume we can make $C$ and $B$ commute.

Then we have the factorization

$$A^3=(C-B)(C^2+CB+B^2)$$

and decide to see if we can set $(C-B)=A$. Then we need

$A^2=C^2+CB+B^2\Leftrightarrow C^2-2CB+B^2=C^2+CB+B^2 \Leftrightarrow CB=0$.

So we just need to generate infinitely many $C$ and $B$ with $CB=0$, from which we can generate the required $A$. But this is easy. For example, for all $n>0$, $C=$

\begin{bmatrix} 0 & 0 & n+1 \\[0.3em] 0 & 0 & 0 \\[0.3em] 0 & 0 & 0 \end{bmatrix}

and $B=$

\begin{bmatrix} 0 & 0 & n \\[0.3em] 0 & 0 & 0 \\[0.3em] 0 & 0 & 0 \end{bmatrix}

work, because $C-B$ is nonnegative and they commute.