Prove, axiomatically that $1$ does not equal $0$.
Solution 1:
If you start with Peano axioms for the natural numbers, then $0$ is part of the language, but $1$ is not. We use $1$ as a shorthand for the term $s0$.
Now we can use the axiom $\forall x(sx\neq0)$, and infer that in particular for $x=0$ it is true that $s0\neq0$. Congratulations, we proved that $0\neq1$ axiomatically.
You can choose different contexts, like set theory, field theory, ring theory or other contexts in which we can interpret $0$ and $1$. You can also find contexts in which $0=1$ is a provable statement. For example the theory whose single axiom states $0=1$. True this theory describes very little of what we expect from the natural numbers, or the symbols $0,1$ to mean. But it is a mathematically valid thing to do.
Solution 2:
1) Prove $a \times 0 = 0$ for all $a$.
$a \times 0 = a(1 - 1) = a - a = 0$.
2) If $0 = 1$ then $a = a \times 1 = a \times 0 = 0$
So all terms equal 0.
Which isn't actually a contradiction. It just means we are working with a trivial field. If the field isn't trivial (say the Reals) than $0 \ne 1$.
Solution 3:
Maybe we have an axiom that says $0$ is the additive identity and another axiom that says $1$ is the multiplicative identity, that is to say, $x + 0 = x$ and $x \times 1 = x$. Then, in order for $0 = 1$, we'd need to have $1 + 1 = 1$ and $0 \times 0 = 0$. But this implies that $1 \times 2 = 1$, contradicting the multiplicative identity axiom which requires $2 \times 1 = 2$. (Maybe we also need an axiom saying addition and multiplication are commutative).
Solution 4:
This is one of those deceptively simple questions that is actually rather tough. Declaring $1 \neq 0$ seems rather cheap, but I can't think of a better way. In the hopes that it helps someone come to be a better answer, here's my attempt:
If $x = y$, then $x - y = 0$ and $x \div y = 1$. Obviously $1 - 0 = 1$ but that doesn't help us since maybe $1 = 0$. Nor does $0 \div 1 = 0$ help either. However, $1 \div 0$ is normally considered undefined, and attempts to define usually go for infinity.
Of course the big flaw in this whole argument is that $0 \div 0 \neq 1$ unless we explicitly defined it that way for the purpose of proving $0 = 1$.
Solution 5:
Some good ideas so far, but trying to bring in multiplication is problematic. I think you have to focus on addition here.
Axiom $0$. The additive identity is $0$. Thus $n + 0 = n$.
Axiom $1$. The successor interval is $1$. Thus the successor of $n \in \textbf{Z}$ is $n + 1$. If $n'$ is the successor of $n$, then $n < n'$ and $n' > n$.
Axiom $2$. Addition is commutative. Thus $a + b = b + a$.
Therefore, $0' = 1$, because $1 + 0 = 0 + 1 = 1$. This sits well with Axiom $0$ and Axiom $1$.
Maybe $0 = 1$. But by Axiom $1$, we have $1 > 0$ and $0 < 1$, flatly contradicting $0 = 1$. We conclude that $0 \neq 1$ after all.